PennyDreadful wrote:
naturalplastic wrote:
One huge problem.
Can we assume that all of the aspies in the first generation are each diploid?
All you have given us is their phenotype, but not their genotypes.
I believe the term you're looking for is homo- or heterozygous (based on the way the information is presented, I think it is intended that every first generation is heterozygous, but you are right that it is important to know this before attempting to figure any of it out).
If a human were not diploid, there are some other, rather more important, genetic problems to be worked out on this island.

Are we to assume Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium laws? Random mating and all that? Difficult in a small population sample. Statistics present the ideal, but there is, for example, the freak possibility that no offspring inherits A, given that even an Aa x Aa has a 1/4 chance of producing a homozygous recessive. So there's 15 (5 men x 3 women) possible Aa x Aa crossings, which means if each crossing produces one child, there is a 1/4^15 chance that none of them will have the dominant trait, and there are 55 (5 men x 8 NT females, 3 females x 5 NT males) Aa x aa crossings possible, each with a 1/2 chance of producing a homozygous recessive, so that's 1/2^55, you can work that out. And that's after only 1 generation. (Feel free to correct any math mistakes I've made, I'm doing this in my head and I'm a bio person, not a math person).
Of course that's just wildly hypothetical and probably not at all the spirit of the question.
I guess if you were born "haploid" then asperger's would be the LEAST of your problems!
Lol!
I was geeky enough to try to solve this.
I made the assumption that all of the aspie individuals were purebred aspies - homozygots.
Put the ten men on one axis and the 8 women on the other.
If each man hooked up with just woman, and vice versa, and produced one child.... well the upshot is... that out of every 80 births in this community-in the first generation-15 would be homozygot aspies, 40 would be heterozygots (mixed genetically- but would exhibit asperger's), and 25 would be purebred neurotypicals. By percentage-that would be 18.75, 50, and 31.25. Almost 70 percent would be aspie by phenotype ( would exhibit the condition in life even though they have only one gene for it).
Assuming an even number of boy and girl kids you could then try to figure out what happens in the next generation.
But( back to the beginning) if you assume some, or all the original aspie founders were hetereozygotic , rather than the homozygotic conditiong that I am assuming, then you would get different figures.
Actually I think what would happen is that after a few generations most of the population would be aspie in phenotype, with a minority of nt's. It would settle into a stable pattern. Niether group would dissappear, but the condtion caused by the dominant gene would be the majority.
If you postulate some reproductive advantage, or disadvantage to one condition or the other, and assign a number to it, then it would get interesting.