Questions I'd Love to See a Creationist Answer
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
Just to clear up confusion here, the reason why conventional current and electron current work equally well is because in electronic circuits the effects are the same. The electrons are the actual items moving, at least in direct current electronics, but the equal and opposite reaction allows for them to have the appearance of either being true in regard to circuitry. In electrochemistry though, it is most apparent that electron current is correct, but for the circuits it doesn't matter. Conventional current was decided by Benjamin Franklyn, and it was a 50/50 guess which we are stuck with. Much like the clock changing of Daylight Savings Time....
But electron current is what is actually true, but conventional current has usefulness only because in the setting of electronic circuits either electron or conventional current work. (It's best to keep straight which one you are using though, otherwise you have a similar problem to recording only numerical values for measurements when you use both Imperial and Metric systems, that is, ambiguity.)
But electron current is what is actually true, but conventional current has usefulness only because in the setting of electronic circuits either electron or conventional current work. (It's best to keep straight which one you are using though, otherwise you have a similar problem to recording only numerical values for measurements when you use both Imperial and Metric systems, that is, ambiguity.)
Well, ok, but to a certain extent, I am basically accepting a more instrumentalist, and fallibilist view of science, which means that how the world literally works isn't the central issue towards saying that a theory is in some sense correct. I mean, modern physics is torn between the standard model of particle physics and relativity, with both theories well supported but both having some contradiction, but I can say that the theories accepted are generally true, despite the fact that both can't be correct as-is at the same time.
I mean, the Newtonian model and the modern physics model also both contradict, but I can also hold both as generally true as well. I mean, I don't think my position is just that I have a terrible understanding of the scientific issues that are being dealt with.
iamnotaparakeet
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Awesomelyglorious wrote:
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
Just to clear up confusion here, the reason why conventional current and electron current work equally well is because in electronic circuits the effects are the same. The electrons are the actual items moving, at least in direct current electronics, but the equal and opposite reaction allows for them to have the appearance of either being true in regard to circuitry. In electrochemistry though, it is most apparent that electron current is correct, but for the circuits it doesn't matter. Conventional current was decided by Benjamin Franklyn, and it was a 50/50 guess which we are stuck with. Much like the clock changing of Daylight Savings Time....
But electron current is what is actually true, but conventional current has usefulness only because in the setting of electronic circuits either electron or conventional current work. (It's best to keep straight which one you are using though, otherwise you have a similar problem to recording only numerical values for measurements when you use both Imperial and Metric systems, that is, ambiguity.)
But electron current is what is actually true, but conventional current has usefulness only because in the setting of electronic circuits either electron or conventional current work. (It's best to keep straight which one you are using though, otherwise you have a similar problem to recording only numerical values for measurements when you use both Imperial and Metric systems, that is, ambiguity.)
Well, ok, but to a certain extent, I am basically accepting a more instrumentalist, and fallibilist view of science, which means that how the world literally works isn't the central issue towards saying that a theory is in some sense correct. I mean, modern physics is torn between the standard model of particle physics and relativity, with both theories well supported but both having some contradiction, but I can say that the theories accepted are generally true, despite the fact that both can't be correct as-is at the same time.
I mean, the Newtonian model and the modern physics model also both contradict, but I can also hold both as generally true as well. I mean, I don't think my position is just that I have a terrible understanding of the scientific issues that are being dealt with.
I've usually heard it said that Newtonian physics is a subset of relativistic physics. Not that they contradict each other, but that Newtonian physics is only valid within certain parameters.
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
Yes, for all ideologies, though I do not know all by only a few so this is a generalization, there are predictive elements. Some have a basis in reality as well, such as something that is observed, recorded, or otherwise be related to the realm of facts somehow. However, ideologies are not scientific theories. They may use scientific theories or data to support them, but if the theories are rejected later or the facts are better explained by different models, then the ideology will still remain even if its original foundation has been destroyed or antiquated. But going on, to see this particular categorization of ideologies:
Well, to some extent, however, usually ideologies see people leave, or gain significantly fewer converts once their foundations are widely known as irrelevant. I mean, the ideologies that have a foundation that has been destroyed or antiquated but hasn't died yet tend to be the ideologies where knowledge of this destruction are not well-accepted among all possible joiners. I don't know what you would assign as this, but the clearest example to me of this might be socialism and Marxism. However, in both cases I would say that they likely have less converts than they used to, they have former members, and I would also argue that the failings of both systems are rarely put forward as clearly as could be done.
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Ideology as presumption
"But a presumption is not an arbitrary belief; it is not “metaphysical” in the sense that it is completely impervious to new evidence. A presumption is a belief we accept until sufficient evidence to the contrary is forthcoming. "
"But a presumption is not an arbitrary belief; it is not “metaphysical” in the sense that it is completely impervious to new evidence. A presumption is a belief we accept until sufficient evidence to the contrary is forthcoming. "
If it alters or is rejected with contrary data, then it more closely follows with the scientific method and is less of an ideology.
Well, not really. Scientific paradigms have been very instrumental in the modern understanding of scientific processes, but scientific paradigms do not follow the scientific method but rather stand above it governing what questions it is good to ask and what experiments should be done. Also, I selectively quoted Rizzo, he also said this:
"However, evidence is rarely definitive or overwhelming. We need to begin from somewhere. The Bayesian statisticians say that we begin with prior probabilities and then update them with new evidence. Prior probabilities are only slightly modified with incremental evidence. These priors function is a manner similar to a presumption."
I don't think my selective quoting impacts the validity of most of what I quoted, but some of the less essential things improve the context.
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For economics, they can measure the GDP and unemployment levels, and within certain assumptions and with qualified definitions of terminology determine whether the free market system is working best for those goals at the current time. This type of ideology has testable elements, however, if another system worked better than the free market system in these areas, then the proponents of it would redefine terms and goals to highlight areas where it is still better than the other. A marketing ploy.
Well, no, they can't just measure the GDP and unemployment levels. The things impacting any economy at a given point in time are full of variables that will perplex any study that tries to be so simplistic. If things were so easy, then you could be the sole economist in the world. There are instead many many many different questions that must be answered, and some tenacity of researchers to continue asking questions promoting their view of things not only makes sure other important questions are asked, but also is beneficial for the entire process.
Rizzo also cited a notion that Popper had about the tenacity of researchers: "In the realm of scientific hypotheses, even the “falsificationist” Karl Popper accepted a principle of tenacity which had it that hypotheses are not to be dropped in face of any conflicting evidence. No hypothesis will have a 100% of the evidence in its favor. "
In any case, researchers only have so much BS that their colleagues will allow them to get away with before dismissing them, so I doubt that "redefine terms" and "marketing ploys" could be the only thing to save a bad theory, unless you are utterly skeptical towards these processes.
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In terms of economics, most people have a narrow view which is based on their own experiences. Such as, Wal-Mart is an example of capitalism in action, Wal-Mart sucks to work for (confer http://www.walmart-blows.com/forum ), therefore capitalism sucks.
Umm.... ok?? I still don't see how this really rebuts a point that ideology is unimportant, or even shows ideology to be unadaptive. I mean, despite the people who work at the bottom of walmart, there are also business owners, investors, managers, etc, and they'll have different experiences. Let's say that you ended up later getting a job as a manager in a company in a job that you seemed to like, you might take this second experience as also being how capitalism works and revise your earlier ideas that were based upon your wal-mart job.
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I'm not certain what you mean here. If you mean whether I'm arguing on the basis Popper's falsification criterion, yes I am, but mostly due to it being the modern standard. I think the verification model may be better though, in terms of it being the standard in use while most new scientific frontiers were being discovered and when many new technologies were invented. However, that may be just a version of post hoc ergo propter hoc, but anyhow.
I am not that strongly of a falsificationist. I think that post-Popperian philosophy of science is more correct, and that science, while ideally holding somewhat to Popper, shouldn't be dogmatic about anything.
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For 1), that may be due to either the person's grounding in their knowledge or their acceptance of the ideology under the assumption that people smarter than them have such knowledge. I find that people generally accept things for two main reasons, either they have learned something on their own or they put trust in others. Or, of course, there's always verbally accepting things under threats, but that's another matter.
Well, it could also be the dogmatic nature of certain belief systems. Some belief systems characterize other belief systems as being completely evil and against them. This often includes certain religions. Other belief systems have a much easier process of entry and exit, as a person might at first be a conservative and then switch to another ideology without feeling too bad about it.
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2) This would be related to argument by popularity.
Maybe, I was just thinking about the old idea that in science, new ideas flood in once the scientists who made their way by the old and bad ideas died out.
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3) This would be related to argument by tradition.
Maybe, I was just thinking about the ideas that people will hold to across generations perhaps by some form of intergenerational brain-washing or some such. Frankly, I would consider ideas like this to be so rare that they generally aren't very much worth considering to exist.
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It would probably depend on the person for 1), and for the statistical grouping of populations for 2) and 3). I haven't heard of "responsiveness" and "unresponsiveness" before, but it was probably an item invented with during the mid 20th century when "Progress" was the battlecry, figuratively.
I made up the term "responsiveness" and "unresponsiveness" to some extent, however, they seem to work in my spell check, so I couldn't have been the first. Frankly, I also wasn't thinking so much about the battle cry of "progress" only about society as an entity responding to new information, sort of like a super-organism.
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
I've usually heard it said that Newtonian physics is a subset of relativistic physics. Not that they contradict each other, but that Newtonian physics is only valid within certain parameters.
From what I've heard what it is is that relativistic effects don't have practical impact within certain parameters. From what I've heard, the relativistic equations are always relevant, it is just that the effects don't tend to be very large unless one is talking about things that go at very high velocities. So, technically Newton's equations don't literally describe what is going on, but they describe it enough.
To go to wikipedia http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Momentum#M ... _mechanics , the relativistic momentum formula is this:
p = (lambda)mv
Where lambda = 1/(1-((v/c)^2))
Now, the issue is that for small values of v relative to the speed of light, lambda isn't very different from 1. The issue is that in most cases, lambda shouldn't be exactly 1.
iamnotaparakeet
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Awesomelyglorious wrote:
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
I've usually heard it said that Newtonian physics is a subset of relativistic physics. Not that they contradict each other, but that Newtonian physics is only valid within certain parameters.
From what I've heard what it is is that relativistic effects don't have practical impact within certain parameters. From what I've heard, the relativistic equations are always relevant, it is just that the effects don't tend to be very large unless one is talking about things that go at very high velocities. So, technically Newton's equations don't literally describe what is going on, but they describe it enough.
To go to wikipedia http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Momentum#M ... _mechanics , the relativistic momentum formula is this:
p = (lambda)mv
Where lambda = 1/(1-((v/c)^2))
Now, the issue is that for small values of v relative to the speed of light, lambda isn't very different from 1. The issue is that in most cases, lambda shouldn't be exactly 1.
That would be a more accurate phrasing I suppose.
Relativistic effects, such as with velocity, are an aspect of special relativity. Gravity, or the curvature of space-time, also causes relativistic effects, which are aspects that general relativity deals with.
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
That would be a more accurate phrasing I suppose.
Relativistic effects, such as with velocity, are an aspect of special relativity. Gravity, or the curvature of space-time, also causes relativistic effects, which are aspects that general relativity deals with.
Relativistic effects, such as with velocity, are an aspect of special relativity. Gravity, or the curvature of space-time, also causes relativistic effects, which are aspects that general relativity deals with.
Right, but if this is the case, then the Newtonian equation isn't really taking all things into account. So, in a sense Newtonian relativity could be argued as incorrect. It certainly isn't telling the whole story. But, that's just a little linguistic dispute.
iamnotaparakeet
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Awesomelyglorious wrote:
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
That would be a more accurate phrasing I suppose.
Relativistic effects, such as with velocity, are an aspect of special relativity. Gravity, or the curvature of space-time, also causes relativistic effects, which are aspects that general relativity deals with.
Relativistic effects, such as with velocity, are an aspect of special relativity. Gravity, or the curvature of space-time, also causes relativistic effects, which are aspects that general relativity deals with.
Right, but if this is the case, then the Newtonian equation isn't really taking all things into account. So, in a sense Newtonian relativity could be argued as incorrect. It certainly isn't telling the whole story. But, that's just a little linguistic dispute.
Yeah, phrasing the terminology correctly and so forth.
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
I'll try to answer the question on my own, but if you want a more official position on the corruption of creation after the Fall and Attack/Defense structures, then I'd suggest going to creation.com or one of the other websites which I've listed in previous posts.
Thank you for your answer. It is informative.
I'm not so sure about consulting creation.com. Ragtime once referred me to that site, and the first three articles I read were so scientifically ignorant, I seriously wondered whether this was a spoof site designed to make creationists look really dumb. But perhaps they take more care when discussing theology.
I had a look at CMI as well when you previously linked to that. They at least make some effort to come up with coherent arguments. They're not intellectually lazy. They still have trouble. Their article on endogenous retroviruses has many problems (tell me if you want me to go through them) and when I looked up what they had to say about chalk cliffs, they didn't provide the information that would be needed to check their calculations. They just state their assumptions and conclusions, but don't explain the calculations that led them from one to the other and they don't give references that would lend support to their assumptions.
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