Ragtime wrote:
That's a common fallacy.
That something is going to happen does not necessarily mean that it is going to happen on its own.
It may be going to happen because the person chose / will choose (depending on your perspective) it to happen. That person making that choice in the present, for instance, would be altering the future with that choice, even though the choice was freely made.
Not a fallacy at all, that is actually a philosophical argument on this matter. If somebody WILL choose something, then there is no room for them to choose otherwise. The fact of the matter is that if all choices could be known from a past date, then the future could be known from the past, and thus the notion "changing the future" would be false as if S is true about the future, then nothing can change S.
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The fallacy comes in when people, when philosophizing about free will, visualize the future as being concrete (which it is once it's happened, but not before), then think, "See? I HAVE to make that choice!"
Well, the future IS concrete if all facts can be known about it. If S is a certain set comprising all data about the future, and S is true, then nothing can make S false, and then the future is closed. Really though, some people don't even hold to that view of the future anyway, as what you are presenting is a type A view of the future, as opposed to the type B view which says that both future and past are closed, and the latter is both a valid position, and some would even argue a more valid position.
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But they are merely confusing cause with effect. The actions in the present and past are the causes, and their outcomes in the future are the effects -- no matter from what confusing angle they are viewed. I explained this in great detail about a year ago on the PPR area, but we're free to go through it again.
This isn't a confusion at all, and frankly, I am not likely going to look through all of these old posts to find your specific post. I either read it and dismissed it, or it is in a thread where I would not know where to look, or I argued with you already on this.
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The fallacy is one of human perspective. Free will is counterintuitive when you view the timeline backwards, from its conclusion.
Nope, not a fallacy at all. Valid logical argument. Had a friend who saw this argument presented in logical terms by a TA in his philosophy class and the prof could not refute it.
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
Awesomelyglorious wrote:
iamnotaparakeet wrote:
How about that we are free to choose, but that our choices are on the timeline.
Umm..... the issue with that is logical fatalism. If it is going to happen, then an individual cannot choose otherwise. From a theological perspective, which I think you have, if we have a creator who creates this timeline, then the conclusion that he ordained all acts is hard, if not impossible to avoid.
Creates the timeline? NO. Created the universe and knows the timeline, yes.
There is no difference though. If he created the universe, and the timeline flows causally or effectively causally from creation, then he essentially created the timeline too. If he knows the results of the timeline, which is a result of his creating the universe, then essentially he caused the timeline to come about, and thus created it.