Male/Female ratios in AS diagnosis

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Here is a question for the scientific researchers.

"Biologists have discovered two new species of duck. One is brown with a bright green head, while the other is mostly just brown. Strangely, the first species produces only males, and the second only females. How do we explain this?"
(Metaphor borrowed from Evomin)

I don't know where this thread is heading.

But, if one species only produces males, they can't breed, so the species is at a dead end and will die out. Same goes for the species that produces females. You have not said this, but if the males and females from the two species can breed successfully and produce breeding offspring, they are not separate species at all.

Well do they "mate" with each other or are they "Asexual reproduction".

One would be they "2 species to make 1 or its just bad data" & the other would be nature "binding two species to make 1".

Technically how long have they been monitoring. Because unless they mate or are Asexual reproduction. They would need to be fertilization.

It's called a “hybrid”, butterflies seen so called mating together.

Edit:- lol wonder if the ducks got out of a lab. Not like it has not happened before.

You know the more I think about this, the more I think of a "Mallard".

I interpreted this the way others did the first time I read it, but reading it over again, it simply sounds as though the species only "produces" one gender, not in a reproduction way, but in a sex-linked genetic way. We all know that mallard/green-headed ducks are always male, and that female ducks are completely female. The male species has the bright feather colors embedded in their male sex chromosome, as a way to help attract a mate. Females' genes make them grow dull-colored feathers. I have a feeling this question is just looking at literal interpretation of words in Asperger's.

I got from this that scientific researchers jumped to an incorrect conclusion. They are the same species but the scientists must have been hung up on the idea that if they look different they are different.

It also tells you why you should "read the actual research paper" rather than a "blog". It also did not help by been so vague. Hence why I was asking for more data.

I must admit I'm lost. I thought the original post was about a hypothetical question. What is the actual research paper?

Quack.

I'm pretty sure this is supposed to be some sort of analogy about Mallards and female Asperger's....

I'm not sure I agree with it, because I'm not sure that female Asperger's looks as differently as people keep trying to force it to be.... there are males who present in the style that is called "female Asperger's" and females who don't.

Sorry hehe me been misunderstanding. By compressing. Mean

You:- "I got from this that scientific researchers jumped to an incorrect conclusion".
me:- "It also tells you why you should "read the actual research paper" rather than a "blog".

When looking up research. They is none for this one, I could not find any.

When me and Mummy_of_Peanut first posts. Thought she was talking about something else.

Edit:- "also starting off like this "Here is a question for the scientific researchers. " Did not help either.

If you take it like this:-

(Autism)As <---- (Bipolar) -----> Extrovert problems ( These ones will say its classified as a disiblity. )
Introvert <---- (Ambiversion) -----> Extrovert ( These ones will say it's just a difference. )

Is this what you mean by the Ratio dif. Because Female Introverts is more accepted than male introverts.
Or females can be more passive.

But your missing the:-

Think rather than a "outside" difference means an "inside".

They is a difference about just been & having problems. Hence why I think this "NT" word has come in. Except it means ( introverts & extroverts )?

Clearly see people trying to move it out of a disiblity.

If you take a continuum & split it in half you get a spectrum.



I have seen this all over the place. Maybe this is why they changing the DSMV.

This is more or less what I was hinting at.

Sorry, folks to cause such puzzlement, but your comments have been very interesting.

I was referring to Simon Baron-Cohen and his team's research into the ratio of males to females of 9;1 diagnosed with AS. As a female Aspie who has been refused a diagnosis, I wonder if this is because AS is seen as an 'illness' with 'symptoms'. I believe we're a different kind of people, and that the males and females of our type differ from each other in the way they appear and behave, just as do the neurotypical males and females. Does this fit with anyone else's experience?

This would mean that a female Aspie would not at first sight appear to be the same as a male Aspie, just as a female Mallard would not look like the same species to someone who doesn't know their Mallards!