So I keep seeing this association between level 1 ASD and Aspergers and I keep feeling the need to correct that. In my research on ASD when my son was diagnosed, that in turn produced my strong suspicions about myself, that in turn resulted in my diagnosis, I repeatedly read that Aspergers was a spectrum with some highly functional independant people who nevertheless clearly showed the classic triad of impairments and some people who were profoundly dysfunctional and could not live without a great deal of support.
Based on that research, I feel compelled to reassert that It's just wrong to equate level 1 ASD and Aspergers.
Consider again the communication and RRIB requirements for level 2 ASD:
Quote:
Marked deficits in verbal and nonverbal social communication skills; social impairments apparent even with supports in place; limited initiation of social interactions; and reduced or abnormal responses to social overtures from others. For example, a person who speaks simple sentences, whose interaction is limited to narrow special interests, and who has markedly odd nonverbal communication.
Inflexibility of behavior, difficulty coping with change, or other restricted/repetitive behaviors appear frequently enough to be obvious to the casual observer and interfere with functioning in a variety of contexts. Distress and/or difficulty changing focus or action.
Many people with Aspergers have RRIB that are "obvious to the casual observer and interfere with functioning in a variety of contexts." Many people with Aspergers meet level 2 criteria for communication difficulties.
There are undoubtedly many people with an Aspergers diagnosis who meet level 1 criteria and also people with an Aspergers diagnosis who meet level 3 criteria, though the language criteria probably do make this a much smaller group.
But let's not be dishonest about an Aspergers diagnosis: it by no means signifies level 1 severity and there are many people with the diagnosis who are not functional without support.