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antonblock
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31 Dec 2010, 7:49 am

Hello,

as we all know, the ratio between male and female aspies is very high, (i think something around 6:1). Furthermore, many assume that autism is not a gender-specific phenomenon. This raises the question, why the ratio is like that, why are so few female detected?

Do they cope better? Do they have less problems? Different problems? Why?

thanks,
anton



CockneyRebel
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31 Dec 2010, 7:55 am

It's because females are trained to be social at an earlier age, and I also have a hunch that most females cope better.


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31 Dec 2010, 7:56 am

I have a hunch prejudices play a role as well.



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31 Dec 2010, 8:02 am

There's also a stereotype that AS is a male disorder and some professionals think that only males can have AS and females are just shy.


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antonblock
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31 Dec 2010, 8:03 am

i want to add something:

I wondered since my teen years, how i know if a girl likes me or not, it was comletely mysterious to me. I always tried to figure out of her behavior. Now at the age of 29 i found out, that the eyes play a very important role, and that it is used oftenly to tell someone some interest in him or her.

And i must do it consciously, the others seem to have intuition for that, maybe i do it also automatically when i trained it more.

I was completely shocked that i found out that soo late. Maybe female aspies for example learn this earlier, but why do they learn eye contact earlier? Maybe someone can remember?



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31 Dec 2010, 8:11 am

CockneyRebel wrote:
There's also a stereotype that AS is a male disorder and some professionals think that only males can have AS and females are just shy.


I was aiming for this and not as explicit as I could be.



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31 Dec 2010, 8:22 am

Could it be there are fewer female Aspies? Is there a sex linked factor at work?

ruveyn



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31 Dec 2010, 8:25 am

CockneyRebel wrote:
There's also a stereotype that AS is a male disorder and some professionals think that only males can have AS and females are just shy.


and some "professionals" even think that only kids have it.....................



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31 Dec 2010, 8:28 am

ruveyn wrote:
Could it be there are fewer female Aspies? Is there a sex linked factor at work?

ruveyn


This possibility has to be considered. My suspicion is that it is several factors, including cultural biases.


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31 Dec 2010, 8:43 am

I would imagine it might be a sex-linked trait-
it lies on the X chromosome,
so males, having only one X, are more likely to develop it than females,
who would have to have it on both Xes.

I think the underdiagnosis of girls is because it's still viewed as a male disorder-
when people think of "Autism" it's not a female they picture, but a male.

I don't know that women are better able to cope-
to the contrary, women are expected (IMO) to be more social and empathetic than men,
and this would be a disadvantage.


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31 Dec 2010, 8:48 am

Bethie wrote:
I would imagine it might be a sex-linked trait-
it lies on the X chromosome,
so males, having only one X, are more likely to develop it than females,
who would have to have it on both Xes.


I think the link to X chromosomes is only true for ~15% of autistic people and there are other genetic causes associated as well.

Quote:
I think the underdiagnosis of girls is because it's still viewed as a male disorder-
when people think of "Autism" it's not a female they picture, but a male.

I don't know that women are better able to cope-
to the contrary, women are expected (IMO) to be more social and empathetic than men,
and this would be a disadvantage.


I think both of these are accurate.



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31 Dec 2010, 9:51 am

ruveyn wrote:
Could it be there are fewer female Aspies? Is there a sex linked factor at work?


I agree. The data strongly suggest a real excess of men with ASDs. Women with ASD are under-diagnosed and receive less support even when they are diagnosed. However, there is currently a political movement to claim that the sex ratio is 1:1 and it is a movement that is based on ideology and not based on scientific data.



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31 Dec 2010, 10:03 am

StuartN wrote:
I agree. The data strongly suggest a real excess of men with ASDs. Women with ASD are under-diagnosed and receive less support even when they are diagnosed. However, there is currently a political movement to claim that the sex ratio is 1:1 and it is a movement that is based on ideology and not based on scientific data.


It may not be 1:1 but is it really as low as 4:1 or 6:1?



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31 Dec 2010, 11:03 am

It's simple really. Men are expected to be manly,buff, wealthy,educated, socially oriented individuals who aren't worthy of reproductions unless the posses the previously mentioned qualities. Professionals can detect at an early age if a kid lacks alpha genetics. The professional(often a doctor) will develop labels for the any kid he feels genetically unfit for the human gene pool. So, if he see's a kid with learning disabilities, he labels the kid as having aspergers so that the kid gets places in special ed and doesnt reproduce.

Doctors have two objectives:

1.) Make money
2.) Weed out the genetically unfit.


I work in a hospital as a non-professional. However, since I work in a hospital, everything I say must be true!











































































































































































































































































































































































SIKE. Heck if I know why there are more female aspies than men??? I know! Why don't I just go start a thread complaining about how women have it easier than men with aspergers which is what I used to do because it's easier than bettering myself. I have every idea what it's like to be a women with aspergers right????



Last edited by ApsieGuy on 31 Dec 2010, 11:10 am, edited 2 times in total.

aspi-rant
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31 Dec 2010, 11:07 am

Bethie wrote:
I would imagine it might be a sex-linked trait-
it lies on the X chromosome,
so males, having only one X, are more likely to develop it than females,
who would have to have it on both Xes.


flawed logic....

more men (XY) than women (XX) are found....

thus...

it should mostly be bound to the Y-chromosome.... not the X!

only males have the Y-chromosome... remember? ;-)

if it was bound to the X-chromosome... woman should have doubled their chances of having autism....



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31 Dec 2010, 11:38 am

aspi-rant wrote:
Bethie wrote:
I would imagine it might be a sex-linked trait-
it lies on the X chromosome,
so males, having only one X, are more likely to develop it than females,
who would have to have it on both Xes.


flawed logic....

more men (XY) than women (XX) are found....

thus...

it should mostly be bound to the Y-chromosome.... not the X!

only males have the Y-chromosome... remember? ;-)

if it was bound to the X-chromosome... woman should have doubled their chances of having autism....


No, if it were bound to the X chromosome, males would only have one X, which means the autistic trait can express unopposed. With two X chromosomes, females are less likely to be autistic because one of those Xs is unlikely to have the trait.

But the thing is while the bit about autism and X chromosomes is true, it's only true for about 15% of all autistic people. It does bias toward males having autism, but there are other genetic causes.