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How does Aspergers fit under ASD?

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inachildsmind
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12 Mar 2014, 2:11 am

I am a bit confused by the articles I have been reading. I was directed to a lady in my area (after the Dr. in another area not putting me in his book) and she said I seem to have Aspergers but now its hard to diagnose because it is all under the ASD. And she said that I could not have Autism cause I spoke early. So how does Aspergers fit under ASD if the language differences separate them? If I can not have Autism then does that now mean that I can not have Aspergers? I fit everything but now I may not get a diagnosis because I talked early instead of late. I do not understand how the DSM-V is putting everything under the same Diagnosis. Please can anyone help clarify it for me?



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12 Mar 2014, 2:16 am

The new criteria for ASD do not require you to speak late. They very specifically removed that criteria as mandatory (although it is one of possibly several criteria you can meet).



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12 Mar 2014, 5:18 am

to add to what verdandi has said,ASD isnt another term for classic autism,its reflecting on the fact autism is also a spectrum and varies from presentation to presentation,that was lorna wings own definition back when she came up with the term.

to put it another way,ever heard of the condition called faetal alcohol syndrome?
it became clear a while ago that it wasnt just the most profoundly affected who got FAS but there were also people who got less obvious symptoms and it varied greatly,so they now use the term FASD [faetal alcohol spectrum disorder].

aspergers is just another form of autism, like classic autism or PDDNOS are forms of autism,so there is no difference or shame in being associated with the autism spectrum or words like 'autistic'.
aspies share many traits with us.


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886
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12 Mar 2014, 5:57 am

I think what she meant is "You cannot have classic autism" and there is a difference.


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inachildsmind
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12 Mar 2014, 7:19 am

KingdomOfRats wrote:
to add to what verdandi has said,ASD isnt another term for classic autism,its reflecting on the fact autism is also a spectrum and varies from presentation to presentation,that was lorna wings own definition back when she came up with the term.

to put it another way,ever heard of the condition called faetal alcohol syndrome?
it became clear a while ago that it wasnt just the most profoundly affected who got FAS but there were also people who got less obvious symptoms and it varied greatly,so they now use the term FASD [faetal alcohol spectrum disorder].

aspergers is just another form of autism, like classic autism or PDDNOS are forms of autism,so there is no difference or shame in being associated with the autism spectrum or words like 'autistic'.
aspies share many traits with us.


To be honest I have been associated with Bipolar my whole life, so I find no shame in being associated with Autism. She very clearly stated that I was misdiagnosed and I feel comfortable with the diagnosis of any ASD. Thank you for explaining the spectrum in a clear way.



inachildsmind
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12 Mar 2014, 7:25 am

886 wrote:
I think what she meant is "You cannot have classic autism" and there is a difference.


So I can still have an ASD diagnosis? To be honest I thought she was saying I could not possibly have a diagnosis because of the talking issue. So if Aspergers does not exhist as a seperate diagnosis, does it still exhist and how is it labled? I know they were doing ASD by sever not so sever and very sever type judging in the DSM-V. So very confusing. But I think what you said may have been what she was trying to say. When she said that I started getting worried like I would be left in limbo. The articles I find are not very informative at least not in a way that I understand.



inachildsmind
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12 Mar 2014, 7:27 am

Verdandi wrote:
The new criteria for ASD do not require you to speak late. They very specifically removed that criteria as mandatory (although it is one of possibly several criteria you can meet).


Good to know! I must have misunderstood her, I will have to have her explain better next week.



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12 Mar 2014, 8:33 am

inachildsmind wrote:
I am a bit confused by the articles I have been reading. I was directed to a lady in my area (after the Dr. in another area not putting me in his book) and she said I seem to have Aspergers but now its hard to diagnose because it is all under the ASD. And she said that I could not have Autism cause I spoke early. So how does Aspergers fit under ASD if the language differences separate them? If I can not have Autism then does that now mean that I can not have Aspergers? I fit everything but now I may not get a diagnosis because I talked early instead of late. I do not understand how the DSM-V is putting everything under the same Diagnosis. Please can anyone help clarify it for me?


That person is misinformed, you do not have to have a language delay or not have spoke early to have autism...some people with autism had/have a language delay...not everyone with autism. Aspergers would now just be considered Autism Spectrum Disorder under the new DSM and the severity of it would probably determine where on the spectrum you are.

Anyone who says you can't have autism due to not having a language delay is mis-informed.


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12 Mar 2014, 8:34 am

886 wrote:
I think what she meant is "You cannot have classic autism" and there is a difference.


Its still ridiculous to base it on that one particular feature....there is no other diagnoses in the world that depends on one single early symptom, so I doubt that is a correct way to separate classic autism from aspergers.


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