If you call it Asperger's instead of Asperger you're faking

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I saw this post by a really stupid male who is putting the females on this blog up onto some strange Madonna/whore pedestal:

https://gendertrender.wordpress.com/201 ... ment-53313

Apparently he thinks males call it Asperger's and females call it Asperger, and the latter is supposed to be correct. He apparently does not think much of either males or females with the condition, as he seems to think that all males claiming to have it are faking it and females with it, well, would never claim it anyway. He also implies that "Asperger's" as opposed to "Asperger" is incorrect, but misses some key points:

1.) The condition was removed from the DSM-5.
2.) In the DSM-IV, the condition was called Asperger's disorder.
3.) In the ICD-10, the condition is called Asperger's syndrome.
4.) The condition did not appear in the ICD-9.

Note the presence of the 's in both number 2 and 3. This is how the term appears in both manuals. I know a list of diagnoses I had at 14 had the 's for the condition.

This seems like smugness to me.

I didn't understand the post; I don't know what he means

The person referred to by the OP is certainly a 'stupid male' (or perhaps even an a--hole). None of what this individual says has any basis in fact.

The condition is correctly referred to as either Asperger's syndrome or Asperger's disorder, and is often colloquially known as 'Asperger's'. As 99.9% of the members of WP will know, this is because the condition was identified by Hans Asperger, hence the apostrophe denotes that it bears his name. Although AS is no longer diagnosed under DSM-V, it nonetheless still exists as both a condition and a term.

Hey beneficii, I just noticed it's your 10 year anniversary on WP today (or yesterday here). Congratulations!

Thanks, jk1!