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Sora
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03 Apr 2008, 11:49 am

Would my diagnosis have to be re-confirmed if I were to move to another country that usually uses another set of criteria to diagnose ASDs than the ICD-10?

Is a diagnosis based on the ICD-10 automatically the same as the according diagnosis in the DSM-IV-TR?

Does it depends on to which country I move to?

This is a question my teacher can't answer naturally. I also can't find anything on this.



katrine
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03 Apr 2008, 12:51 pm

As far as I remember there are no differences when it comes to PDDs.
Of course the way a diagnosis is used differs from country to country.
Also there are differences in traditions when it comes to comorbids like ADHD. In the ICD-10 I think ADHD is not supposed to be given on top of autism, as it's symptoms are meant to be included.
Make any sense?



Sora
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03 Apr 2008, 1:01 pm

Yes, thank you. I didn't think of looking up PDDs in general instead of AS. If I were to study elsewhere, I'd want to apply for additional help is available, which is why I am asking.

And yes, it's right that in the ADHD criteria of the ICD-10 it says that ADD/ADHD can't be diagnosed alongside with any PDD. Some diagnosticians disregard this though.



LostInEmulation
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03 Apr 2008, 2:11 pm

People only can make a diagnosis based on what they know and this can mean that in certain countries (like Germany) it is harder to get one because AS is virtually unknown there.

(This view is not based on hard evidence but on discussions with I met in the chatroom and IRL)


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