Why is Tourette's Syndrome viewed as psychogenic?

Post Reply New Topic

I'm pretty sure all tic disorders, including Tourette's, are in the DSM but I was under the impression that they're neurological rather than psychological/mental disorders... why are they classed as the former?

They are located under neurodevelopmental disorders in the DSM 5.

I'm kinda confused what your question is though, could you please rephrase?

I think because it is a very distinct condition in which even your average lay person can identify it as being out of the person's control. I don't have tourette's but have had tics since I was five years old. It's very obviously neurological. Of course stress can make it worse but it's obviously neurological in origin. I've had these tics for my entire life. They wax and wane. Stress makes it worse, but they never go away. It's not situational.

Mental disorders like depression leave more room for gray area. Is it life circumstances or a chemical imbalance or both? To an outsider, its difficult to say. I believe melancholic depression is every bit as much neurological as Tourette's. But there is no obvious biological test that can diagnose it. That's the problem.

you are correct

TS is viewed as psychogenic

the confusion comes from the mind body dualism problem

to Psychiatry the brain and body are one thing

the mind is an 'emergent' property of the part of the body called the brain

THE SOURCE of all movement (incl. tics) is the brain...the body(ie brain) controls the body(ie muscles/bones)

the mind/psychological state can affect the tics and so it is psychogenic(defined as originating/having its source in the mind)
NOW compare this to a REFLEX and you will understand

a reflex has nothing to do with the mind...ONLY the brain

make sense

I don't know that it is, but the term 'psychogenic' is an absolutely horrid term IMO. It places burden on the individual and therefore shame and guilt from yourself and even worse, society.