I have noticed that when antisemites talk about their opinions about Jews sometimes they refer to them as "The Jew" in a singular form, even though they really mean "Jews". Did anyone wonder why? Personally to me it sounds really poetic/spiritual when The Jew is referred in a singular form. If not, then how about "Eternal Jew", THAT one is trully sounds spiritual. And it is kind of paradoxical that Hitler would use such a poetic term "Eternal Jew" instead of "f****d up Jew" or whatever else. Do any of you wonder why?
I do know the story of Eternal Jew. As centuries passed after Jews killed Jesus, antisemites began to wonder why the Jewish race survives despite God's wrath on it. So they came up with an extra-biblical story that would supposedly explain it. Namely, when Jesus was carrying a cross he wanted to take a break alone the way and some man, who was Jewish, didn't let him. So Jesus told him "I will rest, but you will never rest" and he put on him a Curse that made that guy live forever, never die; but his life is all about moving from place to place and never finding home. People who believe in that story claim that this one man is the one person embodiment of teh Jewish race as a whole since shortly after the Jews crucified Jesus, they were expelled from the holy land and were never finding the place to stay as they were booted from country to country. And, just like that guy, the Jewish race has some mystical immortality to it given how it survives despite being universally hated.
Either way, from my perspective that story still doesn't fully explain why would Hitler actually CHOOSE it as a title of his book, among all other possible titles. After all, yes Jew is eternal. But Jew is also Christ-killing. So why did Hitler choose "eternal Jew" instead of "Christ-killing Jew"? This choice certainly says something that even in case of Hitler, the hatred towards Jews is NOT the same as the hatred to the rest of minority groups. Namely, the Jew-hatred has spiritual/mystical component to it.
It seems like this phenomena is singular to The Jew. No one who hates blacks would call them "eternal black" and no one who hates homosexuals will refer to them as "eternal gay". I have several thoughts on the issue. Perhaps given how Jews are hated for being children of the devil, and devil is something mystical, antisemites want to use mystical terms in order to emphasize the fact that it isn't the usual eartly hatred going on. There is also another possibility -- perhaps Hitler was hopping to put a Curse on The Jew, and, as discussed in another poll I was making, Curses have to be poetic. I guess those two thoughts are in the same dirrection but there is slight difference. In first case, Hitlre is simply emphasizing their already-mystical/satanic state. In the second case, Hitler attempts USING mysticism to PUT even more Curses on them. Or instead it might be possible that actually The Jew is spiritual in a good way and antisemites are simply jealous. They suppress it to the point of sincerely believing that The Jew is inferior; however their suppressed thoughts give themselves away in the fact that they would use such terms as Eternal Jew. Perhaps their excessive self-deception led them to the point that they don't even see Eternal Jew as poetic and to them it is a slur??? Or perhaps neither of the above. perhaps Jews do have some mystical power, which is NEITHER good NOR bad. And this power simply scares ppl who can't understand it and cause ppl to hate them. So since mystical power around The Jew is what originally inspired the hatred, the mystical-looking titles such as Eternal Jew would inspire more hatred? Or perhaps BECAUSE of the fact that they want Jew dead on the first place, they are SO frustrated that he is eternal that the word "eternal" in such context becomes a slur? It is also possible that they are simply trying to emphasize the way all Jews thorughout different countries and generations are so similar to each other that they are like one person. Or perhaps their conspiracy makes them act as a unit. Or perhaps simply when you see "Jews" you will automatically insert "most", but when you see "the Jew" you won't even ask yourself as to whether or not there might be exceptions? Or may be I am reading into it too much. After all they do say "THE MAN doesn't understand THE WOMAN" and make it singular even though nothing mystical is attached to man/woman? Anyway please let me know what you think.
23 Jun 2005, 10:06 pm
