I went to this website
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/17615427/ This website states that people with milder forms of Autism are more likely to be convicted of crimes than people with moderate, severe to profound forms of developmental disorders.
It states that 9% of people with moderate, severe to profound forms of developmental disorders have been convicted.
They then state 86% people with Atypical Autism have been convicted.
Then they state that 114% people with Asperger's Syndrome have been convicted and that the percentages were 8.1% and 18.4%, respectively. The corresponding rate of convictions in the comparison groups was 18.9%, 14.7%, and 19.6% respectively. Particular attention is given to arson in Asperger's syndrome (p= .0009).
I am confused, are people like me with mild forms of Autism less likely to be victims and much more likely to commit crimes than people with moderate, sever and profound forms of developmental disorders?
It feels logical to say that most people with moderate to severe and profound developmental disorders are more likely to be victims of crimes than commit them, because people with severe to profound forms of developmental disorders have learning disorders and lower cognitive functioning that might prevent from take caring of themselves.
But people who are high-functioning and the general population are more likely to commit crimes.
I feel confused, the statistics stats that people with Autism are more likely to be victims of crimes than commit them, but they don't state what type of people with developmental disorders are more likely to be victims.
My thought is that most people who are lower-functioning are more likely to be victims of crimes than commit them.
The study shows nothing. The group is too small to be representative. And how were they picked and how did they get diagnosed? I probably would have been diagnosed earlier in life if I had broken the law because people would have wanted to know why I'd done it.