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Do you think 0.9_ = 1?
Yes 72%  72%  [ 43 ]
No 28%  28%  [ 17 ]
Total votes : 60

robo37
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25 Jan 2009, 2:57 pm

People seem to think that 0.9_ (0.9999999999...) = 1, but I'm not too shore. At http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0.999_%3D_1 Wikipedia says it is and brings up some evidence for it but Uncyclopedia has evidence to prove that 0.9_ doesn't equal one and proves Wikipedia's evidence wrong at http://uncyclopedia.wikia.com/wiki/0.999... . I know Uncyclopedia specialises in making stuff up but it has come up with some good evidence, like the fact that anything minus itself always equals 0, but 1-0.9_ equals 0.0_1, not 0. Do you think 0.9_ = 1?



RockDrummer616
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25 Jan 2009, 3:15 pm

Note that Uncyclopedia's algebraic proof first assumes .999... equal to 1 and then proves it is equal to .999..., so it is actually proving the statement true, not false. And their fraction proof first proves .999...=1, and then they say "Now that can't be right!" and change it so that they are proven inequal.



Loreic
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25 Jan 2009, 3:41 pm

Yes, but Uncyclopedia also says Bill Gates like Ubuntu! :lol:



robo37
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25 Jan 2009, 4:03 pm

But if X-X=0 then 0.9_ can't =1, because 1-0.9_=0.0_1.



Orwell
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25 Jan 2009, 4:26 pm

robo37 wrote:
But if X-X=0 then 0.9_ can't =1, because 1-0.9_=0.0_1.

Except that 0.0_1 isn't a number. That is improper notation. In 0.999... the 9s go out to infinity. It's basically the same as how .3 repeating is 1/3. 0.9 repeating is 3/3, or 1.


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dannit
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25 Jan 2009, 4:32 pm

The real numbers (that is all the usual numbers) are whats called the 'completion' of the rational numbers (the fractions), what this means is if we have a sequence of fractions and start adding infinitely many fractions together what the result may be is not a fraction. For instance 1, 1.4, 1.41, 1.412... is a sequence of fractions that converge to a limit (root 2) that is not rational. The way that one constructs a completion is to consider the space of all sequences and define whats called equivalence classes on those sequences, the way we do this is to say that two sequences are equivalent if and only if the terms between the sequences become closer as you progress through the sequence.

In short, when we write the number 0.99999.... we don't mean 'infinitely many 9's' as thats not useful. We mean that 0.999 is the limit of the sequence 0.9, 0.99, 0.999, 0.9999... and by '=' we mean that the terms between the sequences get close together. So now considering the relation 0.999... = 1 in the sequential format:

0.9, 0.99, 0.999, ...
1, 1, 1, ...

You can see that they get close together and in terms of sequences are 'equivalent' (This alternative definition of equivalence for sequences follows from verify that the relation is symmetric, reflexive and transitive)

I can get references if your interested futher.



nudel
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25 Jan 2009, 5:20 pm

You could also see it this way:
If 0.9_ does not equal 1, then there has to be a real number A 'in between' 0.9_ and 1 ( 0.9_ < A < 1 ). It is quite easy to see that for any real number A < 1 you find a number B = 0.9...9 with a finite number of '9's such that B > A.
E.g. if you chose A=0.99999999243569 then B=0.999999999 would be greater than A. This means that there is no number A that fits 'in between' 0.9_ and 1, which implies that 0.9_ and 1 must be 'infinitely close' together, i.e. they are identical.



Tim_Tex
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25 Jan 2009, 5:44 pm

I will treat it as if it were 1.



ruveyn
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25 Jan 2009, 6:17 pm

robo37 wrote:
People seem to think that 0.9_ (0.9999999999...) = 1, but I'm not too shore. At http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0.999_%3D_1 Wikipedia says it is and brings up some evidence for it but Uncyclopedia has evidence to prove that 0.9_ doesn't equal one and proves Wikipedia's evidence wrong at http://uncyclopedia.wikia.com/wiki/0.999... . I know Uncyclopedia specialises in making stuff up but it has come up with some good evidence, like the fact that anything minus itself always equals 0, but 1-0.9_ equals 0.0_1, not 0. Do you think 0.9_ = 1?


It is relatively easy to prove if you have some algebra and understand limits and convergence. And its not a matter of thinking it is so. It has been proved umpteen times over. If I had a dollar for ever time the question has come up, I would be a rich man.

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25 Jan 2009, 6:20 pm

RockDrummer616 wrote:
Note that Uncyclopedia's algebraic proof first assumes .999... equal to 1 and then proves it is equal to .999..., so it is actually proving the statement true, not false. And their fraction proof first proves .999...=1, and then they say "Now that can't be right!" and change it so that they are proven inequal.


Do you know what a convergent series is? If you did you would not state such nonsense.

See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0.999... for the proof.

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ruveyn
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25 Jan 2009, 6:21 pm

robo37 wrote:
But if X-X=0 then 0.9_ can't =1, because 1-0.9_=0.0_1.


It is 9 with a bar over it indicating an infinite sequence of "9". You misread it.

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pakled
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25 Jan 2009, 6:46 pm

it depends on how important the difference is. If you're measuring something, just round it off...;)

Sorry, been out of school too long; I tend to get practical with math...;)



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25 Jan 2009, 7:18 pm

It equals 1. I proved it in an interesting, roundabout and unintentional way a while back while working on something else.



ruveyn
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25 Jan 2009, 8:13 pm

Here is a pseudo-proof:

Let S = 0.999...
10*S = 9.999......

10*S - S = 9*S = 9 (the .999.... is subtracted off)
divide by 9 and get S = 1.

This is not a proper proof but a hint.

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25 Jan 2009, 10:14 pm

The skepticism with which people approach .999... = 1 is truly amazing. I was on a forum one time where an argument went on for dozens of pages, complete with PHDs chiming in to tell the OP he was wrong, where still he and others adamantly refused to accept it. It's astounding. Wikipedia has a subsection devoted to it in .999...=1


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25 Jan 2009, 10:17 pm

"Close" is never "Perfect."


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